AZ-802 Exam Guide & Practice Questions
Administering Windows Server
Answer 21 scenario questions on this page and see your score as you go. No sign-up needed.
Exam Details
- Exam Code
- AZ-802
- Vendor
- Microsoft
- Questions
- Typically 40–60; varies by exam
- Duration (minutes)
- 100 minutes for associate and expert role-based exams without labs; 120 minutes for those that may contain labs
- Passing Score
- 700 or greater
- Languages
- English
- Question Types
- Single ChoiceDrag and DropHotspot
- Official Page
- View Exam Page
Deploy and manage AD DS
20% - 25% of the examThis topic covers deploying and administering AD DS domain controllers, sites, replication, trusts, and security principals. Candidates must be able to manage these components across domains and forests, and select suitable configurations for organizational requirements.
A company has a single AD DS domain with domain controllers at its headquarters and two branch offices. Staff at one branch report that a user's new password works at headquarters but is rejected at the branch for several minutes. Replication between the sites is functioning, and the administrator wants to identify the FSMO role most relevant to this behavior before investigating further.
Which FSMO role should the administrator investigate first?
Show Answer
Correct Answer
B
The PDC Emulator is the best role to investigate because it can help other domain controllers process recent password changes, which fits the reported delay. Option A is not correct because the RID Master allocates relative identifiers for security principals. Option C is not correct because the Infrastructure Master updates cross-domain references. Option D is not correct because the Domain Naming Master manages domain changes in the forest.
An organization has an existing Headquarters site and is adding a Branch-East site for a new office. The branch uses the 10.40.8.0/24 subnet and has a newly installed domain controller, but client computers are still locating headquarters services. Replication should use the preferred route and occur only during approved hours. The administrator must select the AD DS site configuration for each requirement.
Match each requirement to the AD DS configuration that addresses it.
Match each item to the correct target.
Show Answer
Correct Answer
- Associate clients in 10.40.8.0/24 with Branch-East. matches Create an AD DS subnet object and associate it with the site.
- Define replication connectivity between Branch-East and Headquarters. matches Create an AD DS site link between the sites.
- Associate the installed branch domain controller with Branch-East. matches Move the domain controller's server object into the site.
- Prefer one replication route and limit replication to approved hours. matches Configure the site link cost and replication schedule.
The subnet object maps clients in 10.40.8.0/24 to Branch-East, while a site link defines replication connectivity between sites. The domain controller's server object must be in the appropriate site so AD DS recognizes its location. Site link cost influences route preference, and its schedule controls when replication can occur.
A company has two separate AD DS forests, each with several domains. Users in both forests need to authenticate to services in the other forest, but resource owners must continue to control access through their existing permissions. Administrators are considering a forest trust and an external trust for different cases. Evaluate the proposed statements about trust scope, direction, and resource permissions.
For each statement about the proposed trust design, select Yes if it is correct and No if it is incorrect.
Choose the correct option for each statement.
Show Answer
Correct Answer
- One two-way forest trust can provide a transitive trust path between domains in both forests. Yes
- An external trust between two domains is transitive to every other domain in both forests. No
- Administrators must still grant the required permissions on resource ACLs when a forest trust exists. Yes
- A one-way forest trust provides reciprocal trust direction for users from both forests. No
The selections are Yes for a transitive path across domains in both forests, No for an external trust covering every domain, Yes for granting resource permissions separately, and No for reciprocal trust direction from a one-way trust. A forest trust can provide transitivity between the forests. Trust relationships do not grant permissions on resources by themselves.
Manage Windows Server instances and workloads in a hybrid environment
10% - 15% of the examThis topic covers remote administration of Windows Server and the use of Azure services to manage servers outside Azure. Candidates must be able to configure remote access, connect servers to Azure Arc, and manage updates and extensions for hybrid workloads.
A company has Windows Server 2019 and Windows Server 2022 machines in two on-premises data centers. Each machine is registered with Azure Arc, and administrators can manage the machines in the Azure portal. The company requires a monthly maintenance window, a central view of update compliance, and controlled installation times. It does not run these servers as Azure virtual machines.
Which Azure service should the administrator use to assess and install updates according to the required maintenance windows?
Show Answer
Correct Answer
A
Azure Update Manager is correct because the on-premises servers are Arc-enabled and need centralized assessment and scheduled patch installation. Option B is not correct because Windows Admin Center provides server administration but does not replace Azure patch scheduling. Option C is not correct because Azure Automation Update Management is retired. Option D is not correct because the Connected Machine agent enables Arc connectivity, not patch orchestration.
An operations team manages Windows Server machines in a company data center and in branch offices. The machines are not Azure virtual machines, but the team wants to manage them from Azure. Requirements include registering machines for Azure management, running a supported service or script on selected servers, scheduling operating system updates, and performing browser-based server administration without deploying a separate management server at each branch.
Match each requirement to the Azure feature that best meets it.
Match each item to the correct target.
Show Answer
Correct Answer
- Register an on-premises Windows Server in Azure for management matches Azure Arc-enabled servers with the Connected Machine agent
- Run a supported Azure service or script on a non-Azure server matches Azure Arc-enabled server VM extension
- Assess and schedule operating system updates for Arc-enabled servers matches Azure Update Manager
- Administer a Windows Server through a browser in the Azure portal matches Windows Admin Center in Azure for Arc-enabled servers
The Connected Machine agent registers the on-premises server as an Arc-enabled resource. The Arc-enabled server VM extension runs supported software or scripts on that machine. Azure Update Manager provides update assessment and scheduling for the Arc-enabled servers. Windows Admin Center in Azure supplies browser-based server administration, matching the final requirement.
Administrators connect from a management host to Server A by using PowerShell remoting with Kerberos. A task on Server A must read files from a share on Server B. The operations lead also wants the operators to run only a small set of approved commands on Server A. Security has approved credential delegation for this trusted administration tier, and the team can configure the required remoting settings on the management host and Server A.
For each statement, select Yes if it is correct for this environment. Otherwise, select No.
Choose the correct option for each statement.
Show Answer
Correct Answer
- A JEA endpoint can limit the commands available to operators by using a role capability. Yes
- The first Kerberos remoting hop automatically delegates the operator's credentials from Server A to Server B. No
- Because security has approved credential delegation for this trusted administration tier, CredSSP can support the second hop when enabled on the client and Server A. Yes
- Configuring JEA by itself passes the operator's credentials from Server A to the file server. No
Yes is correct for using a JEA endpoint with a role capability to restrict available commands. No is correct because the first Kerberos remoting hop does not automatically delegate credentials, and JEA alone does not pass them to the file server. Yes is correct for using CredSSP for the second hop because the organization has approved delegation and can enable it on both required computers.
Manage VMs
10% - 15% of the examThis topic covers administering Hyper-V virtual machines, including remote access, nested virtualization, and checkpoint behavior. Candidates must choose settings and tools that meet VM requirements while accounting for how Hyper-V features work.
A team is preparing a Windows Server VM named BuildVM on a Windows Server Hyper-V host. The VM is running, but its virtual network adapter is disconnected while the team investigates a deployment issue. An administrator has valid credentials for the guest and must run a PowerShell service check without changing the VM networking or opening an interactive console.
Which approach should the administrator use to run the service check without relying on guest network connectivity?
Show Answer
Correct Answer
A
Option A is correct because PowerShell Direct uses the VM name and guest credentials to run commands from the Hyper-V host without guest network connectivity. Option B uses ordinary PowerShell remoting, which depends on network connectivity. Option C provides an interactive session rather than the requested remote command execution. Option D requires SSH to be configured and available in the Windows guest.
A company uses a Hyper-V host with a compatible processor to run a Windows Server VM named LabVM for an isolated training environment. The lab must run nested Hyper-V guests, and those nested guests must reach a test network through the host's external virtual switch. During setup, an administrator also needs to run a command inside LabVM before its network is configured.
Match each requirement to the Hyper-V action that satisfies it.
Match each item to the correct target.
Show Answer
Correct Answer
- Allow LabVM to run Hyper-V and create nested virtual machines. matches Set the VM processor to expose virtualization extensions.
- Allow network traffic from nested virtual machines through the external virtual switch. matches Enable MAC address spoofing on the VM network adapter.
- Run a command in the Windows guest without using its network connection. matches Run the command by using PowerShell Direct with the VM name.
Exposing virtualization extensions lets LabVM run a hypervisor inside the guest. Enabling MAC address spoofing allows traffic from nested virtual machines to pass through the parent VM adapter and external virtual switch. PowerShell Direct uses the VM name to run commands in a Windows guest without depending on its network connection.
A systems team is preparing to patch a Windows Server VM that hosts an internal application. The guest has the Hyper-V integration services required for VSS, and the team wants a consistent checkpoint before patching. If Hyper-V cannot create that type of checkpoint, it must not create a less suitable one instead. The team also needs to know whether the checkpoint protects them from host storage failure.
For each statement, select Yes or No.
Choose the correct option for each statement.
Show Answer
Correct Answer
- ProductionOnly prevents Hyper-V from falling back to a standard checkpoint if production checkpoint creation fails. Yes
- For a supported Windows guest, Hyper-V uses the VSS integration service when creating a production checkpoint. Yes
- A production checkpoint captures the VM memory state so that the VM can resume from the same running state. No
- A checkpoint is an independent backup that remains available if the host storage fails. No
Yes is correct for ProductionOnly because the VM will not fall back to a standard checkpoint if a production checkpoint cannot be created. Yes is correct for the VSS statement because Hyper-V uses the guest VSS integration service with supported Windows guests. No is correct for saved memory because production checkpoints do not capture VM memory. No is correct for independent backup because checkpoint files depend on the host storage.
Implement and manage an on-premises and hybrid networking infrastructure
10% - 15% of the examThis topic covers DNS and DHCP configuration for on-premises networks and hybrid environments. Candidates must be able to manage name resolution, IP address assignment, and the availability of these services.
A company hosts an Azure Storage account through a private endpoint and uses the privatelink.blob.core.windows.net private DNS zone in Azure. Its on-premises Windows Server DNS servers must resolve that name for users in two offices. The offices have private connectivity to the Azure virtual network, and the Azure DNS Private Resolver already has an inbound endpoint.
Which change should the administrator make to meet the name resolution requirement?
Show Answer
Correct Answer
B
Option B is correct because the Azure DNS Private Resolver inbound endpoint can receive forwarded queries from the on-premises DNS server over the private network connection. Option A is not correct because 168.63.129.16 is Azure platform DNS and is not an on-premises forwarding target. Option C would not contain the Azure private records. Option D cannot resolve this private zone.
A Windows Server DHCP service currently has an active scope for VLAN 40, and the router already has relay configuration for VLAN 50. The DHCP server and its partner are on different hosts, but they have no failover relationship. A network printer must keep a fixed address, and a planned VLAN 40 subnet change must not affect clients on VLAN 50. The administrator must make the required DHCP changes.
Match each requirement to the configuration action that satisfies it.
Match each item to the correct target.
Show Answer
Correct Answer
- Clients on VLAN 40 must obtain leases from a DHCP server on another subnet. matches Configure a DHCP relay for VLAN 40 on the router.
- A partner DHCP server must serve leases if the primary server becomes unavailable. matches Create a hot standby DHCP failover relationship with the partner server.
- A printer must receive the same address whenever it requests a lease. matches Create a DHCP reservation in the applicable scope.
- Clients on VLAN 50 need addresses from their own subnet range. matches Create and activate a separate DHCP scope for VLAN 50.
A DHCP relay forwards VLAN 40 client requests across the subnet boundary to the server. A hot standby failover relationship lets the partner server take over when the primary is unavailable. A reservation binds the printer to its required address. A separate active scope supplies addresses from VLAN 50's subnet range, rather than incorrectly using the VLAN 40 range.
A Windows Server DNS server hosts the corp.example zone for a company with Engineering and general office clients. The same application name must resolve to a staging address for Engineering clients and to the production address for everyone else. The administrator wants to keep both answers on the same DNS server and avoid changing client DNS settings. The staging answer must not be returned to other subnets.
For each proposed DNS configuration, select Yes if it supports the requirement and No if it does not.
Choose the correct option for each statement.
Show Answer
Correct Answer
- Define a DNS client subnet for the Engineering clients' source network range. Yes
- Create a dedicated zone scope in corp.example for Engineering responses. Yes
- Place the staging A record in the default zone scope so it is returned only to Engineering clients. No
- Create a DNS policy that matches the Engineering client subnet and selects its zone scope. Yes
Yes is correct for defining an Engineering client subnet because the policy needs to identify queries from that source range. Yes is correct for a dedicated zone scope and for a policy that directs matching queries to it. No is correct for placing the staging record in the default scope, which would not restrict that record to Engineering clients.
Manage storage and file services
15% - 20% of the examThis topic covers Windows Server storage, file shares, Azure Files, and related file services. Candidates must choose and configure storage and file service features to meet access, capacity, synchronization, and recovery requirements.
A design firm has 18 TB of project files on a Windows Server file share, but its branch server has only 6 TB of usable disk space. Staff need the existing share path and should keep recently used files available locally. The firm has already deployed Azure File Sync with a server endpoint and an Azure file share as its cloud endpoint. The IT team must free local capacity without deleting cloud data.
Which configuration best meets the company’s requirements?
Show Answer
Correct Answer
B
Option B is correct because cloud tiering can free local disk space while keeping the namespace available and recalling tiered files when users access them. Option A does not control local cache use. Option C describes a deletion policy, not Azure File Sync tiering. Option D is not a supported way to replicate a server share to Azure Files.
A company is consolidating file services for its head office and three branches. Remote staff must reach an existing Windows file share without a VPN, while branch servers have limited disk capacity. Users also need a consistent path to folders hosted on different servers. The file services team must enforce folder quotas and prevent selected file types from being stored on a departmental server.
Match each requirement to the Windows Server or Azure file service that best meets it.
Match each item to the correct target.
Show Answer
Correct Answer
- Let remote staff access a Windows file share over the internet through an encrypted SMB connection without requiring a VPN. matches SMB over QUIC
- Keep a local server endpoint synchronized with an Azure file share and tier less-used files to reduce local storage use. matches Azure File Sync
- Give users one logical path that can direct them to shared folders hosted on several file servers. matches DFS Namespaces
- Apply folder quotas and block specified file types from being saved on a Windows file server. matches File Server Resource Manager
SMB over QUIC provides encrypted SMB access over the internet without requiring a VPN. Azure File Sync synchronizes a server endpoint with an Azure file share and supports cloud tiering. DFS Namespaces presents shared folders through a logical namespace. File Server Resource Manager provides quota management and file screening for Windows file servers.
A company is preparing a Storage Replica partnership between two Windows Server Datacenter systems in separate data centers. The measured network latency is 4 ms, and the business requires the destination to contain every acknowledged write if the source site fails. The destination must not serve normal client writes during replication. Each server has separate volumes available for replicated data and replication logs.
Choose the appropriate value for each statement about the planned Storage Replica configuration.
Choose the correct option for each statement.
Show Answer
Correct Answer
- Replication mode for the 4 ms link and zero-data-loss requirement Synchronous
- Client access to the destination data volume during normal replication Read-only
- Placement of the Storage Replica log volume Dedicated separate volume
Synchronous replication is appropriate because the 4 ms link meets the low-latency condition and the business requires zero data loss. The destination data volume is read-only during normal replication, so users cannot treat it as an active share. A dedicated log volume keeps replication logs separate from the replicated data volume.
Secure Windows Server infrastructure
10% - 15% of the examThis topic covers security controls for Windows Server and AD DS, including application execution, credential protection, local administrator passwords, and security baselines. Candidates must select and configure controls that meet specific protection requirements.
A company runs Windows Server 2022 systems that process financial data. Administrators must first observe which applications and kernel-mode drivers would be blocked, then prevent unapproved code from running across the servers. The approved software list is maintained centrally, and the team wants to avoid relying on users to make reputation decisions.
Which control should the administrators use to audit and then enforce this code execution policy?
Show Answer
Correct Answer
D
Option D is correct because App Control for Business can audit and enforce policies that control applications and kernel-mode drivers. Option A is not correct because AppLocker does not provide the required kernel-mode driver control. Option B focuses on reputation checks for websites and downloads. Option C mitigates exploit techniques in applications rather than controlling which code can run.
An organization manages Windows Server 2022 member servers joined to an AD DS domain. The LAPS schema has been updated, and the domain functional level is Windows Server 2016 or later. The security team requires passwords for managed local administrator accounts to be stored in AD DS, encrypted there, and changed after an administrator uses an account.
For each requirement, select the Windows LAPS policy setting or behavior that meets it.
Choose the correct option for each statement.
Show Answer
Correct Answer
- To store the managed local administrator password in AD DS, select Active Directory
- To protect the password stored in AD DS, select Enable password encryption
- To respond after an authorized administrator uses the account, select Reset the password and log off the managed account after the configured grace period
Active Directory is the correct backup directory because the organization requires the managed password to be stored in AD DS. Enabling password encryption protects that stored password, and the stated domain functional level supports this feature. Resetting the password and logging off the managed account after the grace period limits the time a used password remains valid.
A security team is reviewing controls for a group of Windows Server systems. It must reduce exposure of domain credentials, warn administrators about known malicious websites and downloads, require authenticated IPsec communication between selected computers, and apply a consistent server security baseline. The team needs to assign an existing Windows feature to each requirement without confusing endpoint protection with baseline management.
Match each Windows Server security feature to the outcome it provides.
Match each item to the correct target.
Show Answer
Correct Answer
- Credential Guard matches Protects domain credentials by isolating secrets with virtualization-based security
- Microsoft Defender SmartScreen matches Checks website and download reputation and warns about known threats
- Windows Firewall connection security rules matches Negotiates IPsec authentication between computers
- OSConfig matches Applies or assesses Windows Server security configuration baselines
Credential Guard isolates credential secrets with virtualization-based security, which protects domain credentials. SmartScreen uses reputation information to warn about known unsafe websites and downloads. Connection security rules negotiate IPsec authentication between computers. OSConfig is the relevant choice for applying or assessing Windows Server security configuration baselines.
Monitor and troubleshoot Windows Server environments
15% - 20% of the examThis topic covers monitoring Windows Server performance and events with built-in tools and Azure services, along with diagnosing common server and virtual machine problems. Candidates must select appropriate monitoring features, interpret diagnostic evidence, and identify actions that address issues such as time synchronization, updates, connectivity, and performance.
A Windows Server 2022 member server is several minutes out of sync with other servers, causing time-sensitive application authentication to fail. The Windows Time service is running, and the server is domain-joined. The administrator runs w32tm /query /source and sees Local CMOS Clock. No time-zone change or maintenance window is available.
Which action should the administrator take first to restore the intended time source?
Show Answer
Correct Answer
B
Option B is correct because the domain-joined server reports Local CMOS Clock, so restoring domain-hierarchy synchronization addresses the invalid source. Option A is not correct because a manually configured external peer bypasses the intended domain time path. Option C is not correct because a time-zone change does not correct the synchronization source. Option D is not correct because the service is already running.
A regional operations team supports a mix of Windows Server 2022 machines and Azure virtual machines. Administrators need scheduled counter samples for a local investigation, selected counters and event logs sent to Azure Monitor, guest performance and dependency views for one Azure VM, and local resource-use forecasts on a server. They want to use built-in monitoring features where possible.
Match each monitoring requirement to the Windows Server or Azure feature that meets it.
Match each item to the correct target.
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Correct Answer
- Collect selected Windows performance counters on a schedule and retain the results for later analysis. matches Performance Monitor data collector sets
- Send specified performance counters and Windows event logs from Azure-connected servers to Azure Monitor. matches Azure Monitor data collection rules
- View guest operating system performance trends and dependency information for an Azure virtual machine. matches VM Insights
- Review local predictions of resource use based on historical data on a Windows Server. matches System Insights
Performance Monitor data collector sets record selected counters on a schedule for later analysis. Azure Monitor data collection rules specify which performance data and event logs are collected and sent to Azure Monitor. VM Insights provides performance and dependency views for Azure virtual machines. System Insights uses historical data to provide local resource-use forecasts.
A monthly cumulative update fails on one Windows Server 2022 machine, while other servers update successfully. The update interface shows only a generic failure, the server can reach the update endpoints, and adequate disk space is available. The operations team must gather evidence before resetting update components or retrying installation. They need to identify the client failure code, inspect trace data, check component store health, and review servicing records.
For each task, select the most appropriate diagnostic tool or log.
Choose the correct option for each statement.
Show Answer
Correct Answer
- Identify the Windows Update client event and reported failure code. WindowsUpdateClient/Operational event log
- Convert Windows Update trace data into a readable WindowsUpdate.log. Get-WindowsUpdateLog
- Check for component store corruption before attempting a repair. DISM /Online /Cleanup-Image /ScanHealth
- Inspect package and component servicing details related to the failed update. %windir%\Logs\CBS\CBS.log
The WindowsUpdateClient/Operational event log provides the update client events and reported failure code. Get-WindowsUpdateLog converts Windows Update trace data into a readable log, while DISM /Online /Cleanup-Image /ScanHealth checks the component store for corruption. The CBS log contains package servicing and component servicing details, so it is the appropriate source for that investigation.
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Frequently Asked Questions
Which AZ-802 topic is likely to demand the most careful preparation?
Active Directory Domain Services is the largest topic area, weighted at 20% to 25%. The challenge is choosing configurations that fit organizational needs across domains and forests, including domain controllers, sites, replication, trusts, and security principals. Knowing individual features is not enough if you cannot distinguish when each configuration is appropriate. Practise explaining why a proposed AD DS setup meets a stated requirement, then review the related topic areas you find least familiar.
Why can the troubleshooting scenarios feel difficult even when I know the tools?
AZ-802 asks you to interpret evidence and select an action, rather than simply recognize tool names. Monitoring and troubleshooting includes performance and event monitoring, as well as issues involving time synchronization, updates, connectivity, and virtual machine performance. A scenario may require you to identify which evidence matters before choosing a fix. Practise tracing each symptom to a likely cause and record which built-in or Azure monitoring feature would help confirm it.
How do I bridge the gap between reading about a feature and choosing it in a scenario?
Many candidates can describe DNS, DHCP, Azure Arc, or Hyper-V features but hesitate when a scenario adds requirements for availability, remote access, or recovery. For each topic, turn the requirement into a decision rule, such as what must remain accessible or what needs to be managed remotely. The Exam4Success Practice Test format can help you identify areas where your choices are inconsistent. Use those results to revisit the relevant topic, rather than repeating questions without review.
What can I do when I cannot practise every Windows Server task in a lab?
Some tasks, such as configuring a Hyper-V checkpoint or testing hybrid file access, are easier to understand after hands-on work. If you cannot reach a lab, focus on the decision behind the configuration and the expected result, then use a lab when one becomes available to verify your understanding. The Exam4Success PDF format is useful for reviewing topic notes away from a lab. Keep a short list of tasks you still want to test hands-on.
What practical capabilities does AZ-802 help me develop as a Windows Server administrator?
The exam covers a broad administrator skill set, including AD DS, hybrid server management with Azure services, Hyper-V, networking, storage, security, and troubleshooting. That makes its subject matter relevant to work involving both on-premises servers and hybrid workloads. It also provides a structured way to identify gaps across these responsibilities. To connect preparation to your role, compare the topic list with the tasks you handle now and choose one unfamiliar area to study first.
How can preparing for AZ-802 strengthen my approach to server security and file services?
AZ-802 brings together controls such as application execution, credential protection, local administrator passwords, and security baselines with practical file service decisions. Storage and file service topics include Windows Server storage, file shares, Azure Files, synchronization, access, capacity, and recovery. Studying these areas can help you reason about protection and availability as connected operational needs. Choose a file access or security requirement from your work and map it to the relevant features in the exam topics.
How should I judge whether I am ready to book AZ-802?
Start by checking whether you can explain the main configuration choices across all seven topic areas, especially the higher-weighted AD DS and storage or troubleshooting areas. The official passing score is 700 or greater, but a practice result alone cannot guarantee readiness. The Exam4Success Practice Test format can help reveal weak areas and show how comfortably you work under timed conditions. Before booking, review missed concepts and confirm that you can explain the reasoning behind your choices.
How much study time should I plan, and what should I study first?
Your study time depends on your experience with Windows Server and hybrid administration, so begin with a topic-by-topic self-assessment rather than a fixed timetable. Prioritize gaps in AD DS, then address the remaining areas according to their published weightings and your own needs. The exam is in English, and the stated question count typically ranges from 40 to 60, varying by exam. Timing is 100 minutes for associate and expert role-based exams without labs, and 120 minutes for those that may contain labs. Confirm the details provided for your sitting.
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